1. which of the following is harder for intuitive tests than for systematic tests
a) Dealing with ambiguous requirement specifications
b) Estimating the time required for execution
c) Discovering unforeseen side effects
d) Determining the time to spend isolating any bug discovered during testing
2. The steps included in review are
a) Planning, preparation, inspection meeting follow up
b) Peer review, walkthrough, inspection
c) Plan, design, execute and report
d) All the above
3. Which is not a part of the test case?
(Executing the preconditions, all possible deviations from Expected Result, i/p, o/p)
4. What is the indirect cost involved in the installation of new software tool?
(maintaince cost, training cost, assimilation cost, onsite installation cost)
5. mistake & error are similar.. similarly what word is similar to this..
(defect & error, defect & bug, bug & error, failure & error)
6. In a project , total 100 defects found, of which 2/3 are functional defects related to GUI and next 33 are defects to non functional. Then what type of ….???
(defect clustering,..)
7. Before a release of software, bug is found in the software in test lab by test team. This is a easy to fix bug. Then development team fixes this bug in the test lab but version of s/w is not changed. Now tell whether this is good/ bad practice.
(Good practice, It is fine, Bad practice—after the fixing ,the version number should be changed., Bad practice—the bugs should be recorded, assigned to development team and the fixes are allowed in the next release.)
8. Which of the following is the Best example to show why testing is necessary..
9. Dev team manager asks the test manager for resources to complete the project on time what test manager will do….(Say No, give resources, Ask the PM for this & then if he permits allocate the development background resources)
10. Test manager wants to run all the tests.. As there is enough time testing was done in a normal manner.. The test manager is wrong becoz
(more defects found at end of project will lag in time, focus on high priority / high risk areas should be given)
11. Find statement coverage if cond1 then statement 1 else statement 2 fi if cond2 then statement 3 fi) (1,2,3,4)
12. which of the following is not a form of non fuctional testing
13. Component testing & unit testing are done at different stages in sdlc? True or False
.
14. CM & Defect tracking are best suited for (regression testing, confirmation testing).
15. What is confirmation testing
(1)Defects found are fixed and retested again. 2) to verify the success of corrective actions,3)Rechecking the software)
16. IEEE 829, Test Design Specification Serves to ---
(Who will do the testing, group of test cases, Test case,)
17. No Written Docs available, how to verify the expected result
(from prev exp in similar type of project, Automated Test Oracle, )
18. Definition of Validation.
19. Boundary value analysis: 0<=x<100
(-1,0,99,100 2) 0,100 3) –1,0,1,99,100 )
20. Exhausting testing
(All possible combination of i/p & preconditions, All possible combination of i/p, All possible combination of i/p & o/p)
21. what is the role of Moderator.
22. Record & playback tool is used in (Regression Testing)
23. what is the characteristics of the good defect tracking tool (uses CM & defect management)
24. Code coverage tool tells you ( where the defects are in the code, statement coverage )
25. Why test objective is important (to determine the product risk associated with that test objective)
26. As per the company policy, every line of the code should be executed. So it is having most impact on ( Unit testing, integration testing, system testing)
27. Which of the following is not related with performance testing (predicate maintainability, )
28. definition of regression testing
29. McCabe’s basis test coverage achieves….?
30. What level of white box test coverage is achieved (statement & branch coverage)
Saturday, December 27, 2008
Friday, July 11, 2008
ISTQB sample Questions
___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
System testing should investigate (2M)
Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
Define when to stop testing
End of test level
When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
All of the above
Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
Poor software characteristics are (3M)
Only Project risks
Only Product risks
Project risks and Product risks
Project risks or Product risks
________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and updates
The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Bug life cycle (1M)
Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
Find the mismatch (2M)
Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
Test design tools – Generate test inputs
Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
FPA is used to (2M)
To measure the functional requirements of the project
To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
To measure the functional testing effort
To measure the functional flow
Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
The existing system (For a bench mark)
The code
Individual’s knowledge
User manual
Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
Heuristic testing approach
Methodical testing approach
Model based testing approach
Process or standard compliant testing approach
A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
ISTQB Foundation Level Second Batch (8th July 2006)
Mock Test 1 Key
Q.No
Answer
Q.No
Answer
1
B
20
D
2
C
21
C
3
A
22
D
4
B
23
D
5
A
24
A
6
C
25
B
7
B
26
D
8
C
27
A
9
C
28
C
10
D
29
D
11
D
30
A
12
B
31
B
13
B
32
B
14
A
33
C
15
D
34
C
16
A
35
A
17
D
36
B
18
A
37
A
19
C
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
System testing should investigate (2M)
Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
Define when to stop testing
End of test level
When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
All of the above
Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
Poor software characteristics are (3M)
Only Project risks
Only Product risks
Project risks and Product risks
Project risks or Product risks
________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and updates
The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Bug life cycle (1M)
Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
Find the mismatch (2M)
Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
Test design tools – Generate test inputs
Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
FPA is used to (2M)
To measure the functional requirements of the project
To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
To measure the functional testing effort
To measure the functional flow
Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
The existing system (For a bench mark)
The code
Individual’s knowledge
User manual
Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
Heuristic testing approach
Methodical testing approach
Model based testing approach
Process or standard compliant testing approach
A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
ISTQB Foundation Level Second Batch (8th July 2006)
Mock Test 1 Key
Q.No
Answer
Q.No
Answer
1
B
20
D
2
C
21
C
3
A
22
D
4
B
23
D
5
A
24
A
6
C
25
B
7
B
26
D
8
C
27
A
9
C
28
C
10
D
29
D
11
D
30
A
12
B
31
B
13
B
32
B
14
A
33
C
15
D
34
C
16
A
35
A
17
D
36
B
18
A
37
A
19
C
ISTQB sample Questions
___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
System testing should investigate (2M)
Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
Define when to stop testing
End of test level
When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
All of the above
Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
Poor software characteristics are (3M)
Only Project risks
Only Product risks
Project risks and Product risks
Project risks or Product risks
________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and updates
The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Bug life cycle (1M)
Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
Find the mismatch (2M)
Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
Test design tools – Generate test inputs
Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
FPA is used to (2M)
To measure the functional requirements of the project
To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
To measure the functional testing effort
To measure the functional flow
Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
The existing system (For a bench mark)
The code
Individual’s knowledge
User manual
Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
Heuristic testing approach
Methodical testing approach
Model based testing approach
Process or standard compliant testing approach
A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
1
B
20
D
2
C
21
C
3
A
22
D
4
B
23
D
5
A
24
A
6
C
25
B
7
B
26
D
8
C
27
A
9
C
28
C
10
D
29
D
11
D
30
A
12
B
31
B
13
B
32
B
14
A
33
C
15
D
34
C
16
A
35
A
17
D
36
B
18
A
37
A
19
C
Tuesday, July 1, 2008
ISTQB Sample Questions
1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004 The boundary values for testing this field area. 0,1900,2004,2005b. 1900, 2004c. 1899,1900,2004,2005d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
System testing
Usability testing
Performance testing
Both b & c
Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
Data tester
Boundary tester
Capture/Playback
Output comparator.
Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
Statement Coverage
Pole Coverage
Condition Coverage
Path Coverage
Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
Functionality
Usability
Supportability
Maintainability
To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
Stub
Driver
Proxy
None of the above
Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy
Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
Lack of technical documentation
Lack of test tools on the market for developers
Lack of training
Lack of Objectivity
11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?a. When the code is complete.b. When the design is complete.c. When the software requirements have been approved.
When the first code module is ready for unit testing
In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Given the Following program
IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable
15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
System testing
Usability testing
Performance testing
Both b & c
Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
Data tester
Boundary tester
Capture/Playback
Output comparator.
Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
Statement Coverage
Pole Coverage
Condition Coverage
Path Coverage
Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
Functionality
Usability
Supportability
Maintainability
To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
Stub
Driver
Proxy
None of the above
Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy
Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
Lack of technical documentation
Lack of test tools on the market for developers
Lack of training
Lack of Objectivity
11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?a. When the code is complete.b. When the design is complete.c. When the software requirements have been approved.
When the first code module is ready for unit testing
In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Given the Following program
IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable
15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c
Monday, June 23, 2008
Software Testing Questions
Question
NOTE: Only one answer per question
1
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4
Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5
Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6
Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7
Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8
In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10
Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11
Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12
Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13
Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14
Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15
Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16
Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17
How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19
The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20
Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21
Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22
Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25
Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26
Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28
An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30
What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31
Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32
Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33
Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34
Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35
A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37
The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38
Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39
Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Question number
Correct answer
1
A
2
A
3
D
4
C
5
A
6
A
7
C
8
B
9
C
10
D
11
A
12
B
13
A
14
C
15
B
16
B
17
D
18
D
19
B
20
A
21
D
22
A
23
B
24
C
25
D
26
C
27
C
28
A
29
C
30
D
31
C
32
B
33
C
34
C
35
B
36
D
37
C
38
D
39
D
40
B
NOTE: Only one answer per question
1
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4
Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5
Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6
Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7
Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8
In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10
Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11
Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12
Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13
Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14
Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15
Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16
Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17
How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19
The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20
Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21
Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22
Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25
Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26
Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28
An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30
What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31
Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32
Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33
Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34
Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35
A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37
The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38
Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39
Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Question number
Correct answer
1
A
2
A
3
D
4
C
5
A
6
A
7
C
8
B
9
C
10
D
11
A
12
B
13
A
14
C
15
B
16
B
17
D
18
D
19
B
20
A
21
D
22
A
23
B
24
C
25
D
26
C
27
C
28
A
29
C
30
D
31
C
32
B
33
C
34
C
35
B
36
D
37
C
38
D
39
D
40
B
Software Testing Fundamental Question
NOTE: Only one answer per question
Q1
A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
Q2
Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
Q3
IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications
Q4
When should testing be stopped?
a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q5
Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000
Q6
Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
Q7
Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist
Q8
Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access
Q9
Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q10
What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing
Q11
Consider the following statements:
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
Q12
Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q13
Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q14
Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q15
Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
Q16
Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents
Q17
Maintenance testing is:
a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage
Q18
What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations
Q19
Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
Q20
Beta testing is:
a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer's site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q21
Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
Q22
The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective
Q23
Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
Q24
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
Q25
A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file
Q26
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
Q27
Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code
Q28
What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a) walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review
Q29
Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing
Q30
What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a) setting up forms and databases
b) analysing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q31
Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems
Q32
Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
Q33
Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing
Q34
Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q35
The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729
Q36
The cost of fixing a fault:
a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined
Q37
Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines
Q38
Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
Q39
Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions
Q40
Error guessing is best used:
a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live
Question number
Correct answer
1
C
2
C
3
D
4
D
5
C
6
A
7
B
8
A
9
C
10
D
11
B
12
B
13
D
14
C
15
D
16
C
17
B
18
C
19
B
20
A
21
A
22
D
23
A
24
D
25
A
26
A
27
C
28
B
29
D
30
C
31
B
32
A
33
D
34
A
35
B
36
B
37
C
38
C
39
B
40
A
Q1
A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
Q2
Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
Q3
IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications
Q4
When should testing be stopped?
a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q5
Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000
Q6
Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
Q7
Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist
Q8
Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access
Q9
Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q10
What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing
Q11
Consider the following statements:
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
Q12
Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q13
Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q14
Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
Q15
Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
Q16
Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents
Q17
Maintenance testing is:
a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage
Q18
What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations
Q19
Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
Q20
Beta testing is:
a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer's site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q21
Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
Q22
The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective
Q23
Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
Q24
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
Q25
A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file
Q26
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
Q27
Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code
Q28
What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a) walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review
Q29
Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing
Q30
What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a) setting up forms and databases
b) analysing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q31
Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems
Q32
Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
Q33
Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing
Q34
Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q35
The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729
Q36
The cost of fixing a fault:
a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined
Q37
Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines
Q38
Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
Q39
Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions
Q40
Error guessing is best used:
a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live
Question number
Correct answer
1
C
2
C
3
D
4
D
5
C
6
A
7
B
8
A
9
C
10
D
11
B
12
B
13
D
14
C
15
D
16
C
17
B
18
C
19
B
20
A
21
A
22
D
23
A
24
D
25
A
26
A
27
C
28
B
29
D
30
C
31
B
32
A
33
D
34
A
35
B
36
B
37
C
38
C
39
B
40
A
Software testing Sample Questions
Few sample Question
1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
ANSWERS:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
1.Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
2.Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
6.In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
22.which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
ANSWERS:
1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
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