Sample Test for ISEB/ISTQB with Answers

1. You are testing the Product/Application according to your assign module. By seeing _______ you can say that you have done full Testing.

A. Project Status Report B. Risk Analysis Doc C. Tractability Matrix D. Bug Report

2. Which of the following best defines walkthrough?

A. A walkthrough as attesting technique whereby the system is subjected to huge loads of data over a short time
B. A walkthrough is a technique whereby a system is timed to see how long it takes the computer to walk through it to produce a result
C. A walkthrough is a session during which the participants act out the role of the computer in order to find flaws in the system.
D. A walkthrough is a technique whereby a number of testers are given the system for black box testing.

3. Identify which participant roles are used during a formal inspection?
(1) Moderator, (2) Author/producer, (3) Reader, (4) Inspector, (5) Recorder

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. All 5 from the above
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 4 and 5 only

4. Which testing technique involves installing a system at a large number of user sites?

A. Alpha testing B. Volume testing C. Beta testing D. Boundary value analysis

5. The program according requirements expects the uppercase letters from A to Z. Analyze the following inputs and choose one that can cause the failure with greater probability.

A. 1, 0 B. @, [ C. B, W D. None of these



Here I am



6. What are some of the common misconceptions during implementation of an automated testing tool for the first time?
A. Regression testing phase will be shortened
B. Existing testing processes can be used and all testers will have the skills to learn the new tool
C. During a ramp-up period, testing will take longer
D. Full Testing phase will be shorten

7. Automation test tool is best suited for

A. Functional Testing B. Regression Testing C. System Testing D. Performance Testing

8. ------------- Is generally assessed in terms of response time and throughput rates under differing processing and configuration conditions.

A. Unit Testing B. Regression Testing C. Performance Testing D. Ad hock Testing

9. Which of the following is IEEE 1219 standard?

A. Software Product Evaluation B. Software Life Cycle Processes.
C. Software Product Quality D. Software Maintenance.


10. A good way to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions, and to document internal system design. They may be used to record complex business rules that a system is to implement.

A. Decision tables B. Decision Tree C. Use Case D. Software Requirement Specification

11. Which type of Testing is much used within the embedded software industry and technical automation in general? This technique is also suitable for modeling a business object having specific states or testing screen-dialogue flows.

A. Decision Table Testing B. Use Case Testing C. Statement testing D. State Transition Testing

12. In which test approach, where test coverage is driven primarily by the advice and guidance of technology and/or business domain experts outside the test team.

A. Methodical approaches B. Model-based approaches
C. Dynamic and heuristic approaches D. Consultative approaches

13. The best way to establish and maintain the integrity of the products (components, data and documentation) of the software or system through the project and product life cycle.

A. Project Plan B. Requirement Management C. Configuration Management D. Risk Management

14. In a testing approach which separates out the test inputs (the data), usually into a spreadsheet, and uses a more generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test with different data.

A. Unit Testing B. System Testing C. Performance Testing D. Data Driven
15. Suppose your company is planning to buy the new automation tool. Then what are the potential benefits they get from using the tool.

i. Repetitive work is reduced
ii. Greater consistency and repeatability
iii. Ease of access to information about tests or testing

A. Only I B. i &iii C. I &ii D. All

16. A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project. It involves the identification of product risks and their use in guiding the test planning, specification, preparation and execution of tests. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to

a) Determine the test techniques to be employed.
b) Determine the extent of testing to be carried out.
c) Prioritize testing in an attempt to find the critical defects as early as possible.
d) Re-prioritize tests when an identified risk occurs

A. a&b B. All C. a, b&c D. a&d

17. Which of the following test estimation approach is based upon, past experience of an organization's various projects and the associated test effort that worked well for projects. Once there is a set of data covering characteristics for a reasonable number of projects, then this 'past experience' information can be used for future test project planning.

A. Metrics-Based Approach B. Percentage-of-Development Approach
C. Iterative Approach D. Implicit Risk Context Approach




18. Your Manager has assigned one model for testing. They have given the instruction to use best test approach, so that the cost of bug will be low. So, which test approach will be the best approach?

A. Analytical approaches B. Preventative approaches,
B. Methodical approaches C. Dynamic and heuristic approaches

19.Which of the following is structure based testing?

A. Statement testing and coverage B. Decision testing and coverage C. Condition testing D. All

20. A software manager for a company that provides embedded, real-time software is asked to benchmark the
department’s development and test processes. It would be appropriate for the manager to select a process model
from a company that develops software for

A. Data processing applications B. Database management systems
C. Robotic systems D. Graphical user interfaces

21. Which of the following tests are derived from the tester’s skill and intuition and their experience with similar applications and technologies

A. Error Guessing B. Exploratory Testing C. a&b D. None

22. The most appropriate driver for developing metrics is

A. Poor results in internal quality audits B. Management goals
C. Customer complaints D. missed milestones

23. Which unit testing technique eliminates the need for writing stubs?
A. Top down testing B. Bottom up testing C. Big bang testing D.Incremental testing

24. Which one among the following is correct?

A. Error ->fault ->failure B. Fault ->mistake ->error
C. Fault ->error ->failure D. Error ->mistake ->failure

25. Which of the following techniques is used in identifying underlying problems?

A. Cause and effect analysis B. Prioritization matrix C. Force field analysis D. Pareto analysis

26. Which of the following is the best resource for validation testing of an object-oriented system?
A. PERT charts B. Use case scenarios C. Entity relationship diagrams D. Decomposition matrices

27. Which of the following testing may include tests based on risks and/or on requirements specifications, business
Processes, use cases, or other high level descriptions of system behavior, interactions with the operating system, and system resources?

A. Sanity Testing B. System testing C. Smoke Testing D. Load Testing
28. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of the whole system.
B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test.
C. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, Inspection, etc).
D. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible.



29. Test ware (test cases, test data, etc.)
A. Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
B. Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
C. Is needed only until the software is released into production or use
D. Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

30. A test design technique is
A. A process for selecting test cases B. A process for determining expected outputs
C. A way to describe in a test plan what has to be done D. All of the above






1 C
2 C
3 B
4 C
5 B
6 B
7 D
8 C
9 D
10 A
11 D
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 D
16 C
17 A
18 B
19 D
20 C
21 C
22 B
23 B
24 A
25 A
26 B
27 B
28 C
29 C
30 D

ISEB/ISTQB foundation

1. When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

(A) Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and is likely to make the system fail
(B) Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
(C) Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
(D) Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

2. The inspection process assigns different roles to each of the inspectors in order to

(A) Keep the inspection teams small and manageable
(B) Encourage different viewpoints during the inspection process
(C) Use fewer organizational resources at any point in time
(D) Empower the inspection team members


3. The publisher of a social services resource guide has contracted for the development of an electronic version of
its guide. The product has been loosely defined to date due to the limited knowledge of the technology available
to the user community and to the limited technical expertise of the publisher’s staff. The development team
for this project will consist of two employees who are new to the company and one programmer with minimal
experience. Which of the following approaches would best serve the needs of this project?

A. Clean room methods B. Waterfall model C. Object oriented development D. Iterative development

4. A software quality assurance plan should be based principally on the quality requirements of

A. IEEE 730 B. ISO 9001 C. The customer/Clients D. Software engineering

5. Equivalence class partitioning is a testing technique best defined as the organization of each

A. Element of the specification into workable pieces B. Combination of states into two or more groups
C. Program function by intuition and experience D. Input domain into two or more groups

6. Which of the following models is characterized as being suitable for a software development project that has well-defined requirements?

A. Prototyping B. Spiral C. Waterfall D. Iterative

7.Records of the results of inspections should include which of the following?

(A) Identification of inspectors, list of defects, and date performed
(B) Work product, list of defects, and configuration status
(C) Identification of inspectors, their qualifications, and their training records
(D) Date performed, management approval, and resources used

8.The following code segment contains a potential “divide by 0” error.

J=50
K=1
While (N>=10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N 1
End loop

Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
A. Boundary testing B. Condition testing C. Compilation of the source code D. Source code inspection

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true about a software verification and validation program?

(A) It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
(B) It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
(C) It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
(D) It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

10.Which two of the following are characteristics of a successful defect prevention program?

I. It is performed using a top-down approach.
II. A root cause analysis of defects is conducted.
III. Historical defect data are tracked.
IV. It is initiated at the end of the design phase.
A. I and III B. IV and I C. II and III D. II and IV

11. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?

A. Conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing
B. specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
C. consider using independent test teams
D. all of the above

12. Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new

A. Control logic and data flow paths are invoked B. Memory size increases
C. Drivers require testing D. A and B.

13. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?
A. Allow senior staff members to correct errors
B. Assess programmer productivity
C. Par determining who introduced an error into a program
D. Uncover errors in software work products

14. When a defect is fixed in production how rather than in requirement, how much expensive is that

A. 5 times B. 50 times C. 500 times D. None

15. Which of the following Test cannot be automated?

A. Performance testing B. Regression Testing C. UAT D. None

16. The incremental model of software development is

A. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
D. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

17. Software testing activities should start
A. As soon as the code is written B. During the design stage
C. When the requirements have been formally documented D. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle
18. Which is not system level testing?
A. System Testing B. Performance Testing C. Installable Testing D. None
19. Compatibility testing uses
A. All S/W component B. All H/W component C. All N/W component D. A&B E. A&B&C
20. Acceptance test plan is prepared from
A. SRS B.HLD C. DD D.ULD/URD
21. For what purpose IEEE 829 template is used
A. Unit Testing B. Integration Testing C. Test Plan D. Test Documentation
22. Which of the following not comes under testing process?
A. Plan test B. Execute Test C. Manage Test D.Develop Test E. None of these
23. BS 7925-2 is standard for
A. Software Component testing B. Software Test Plan C. Unit Testing D. Integration Testing
24.Which of the following is test design technique
A. Equivalence Partioning B. Cause Effect Graphing C. Boundary Value Analysis D. All
25.Which of the following is the standard for software Unit Testing
A. IEEE 1008 B.IEEE 1009 C.IEEE 10288 D. IEEE 829
26. IEEE 1012 is standard for software
A. Unit Testing B. Software Review C. Verification and Validation D. Test Documentation
27. IEEE 10288 is standard for software
A. Unit Testing B. Software Review C. Verification and Validation D. Test Documentation
28. Which of the following is the standard for the software Test Documentation
A. IEEE 1012 B. IEEE 729 C.IEEE 829 D. IEEE 10288
29. You have delivered a product to the customer, insuring that there is no high severity. After certain time he/she found the bug in the production environment. Then the cost of bug will be
A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Very High
30. Just like with Salman. It’s difficult to swim in upstream. Each step is a discrete, standalone process that follows the one before it. If you get to the end and find that something should have happed further up. It’s too late to go back. This type of tendency found in which SDLC model
A. V-Model B. Spiral Model C. Rapid Application Development D. Water Fall model

Mock Test Paper-I

1 C
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 D
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 C
10 C
11 D
12 D
13 D
14 C
15 C
16 A
17 C
18 D
19 E
20 A
21 D
22 E
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 C
29 D
30 D

Sample Question for Testing

1.What does a tester do during "Static testing”?

A. Reviews requirements and compares them with the design
B. Runs the tests on the exact same setup each time
C. Executes test to check that all hardware has been set up correctly
D. Runs the same tests multiple times, and checks that the results are statistically meaningful

2.Which of the following answers reflect when Regression testing should normally be performed?

A. Every week
B. After the software has changed
C. On the same day each year
D. When the environment has changed
E. Before the code has been written

1. B & D are true, A, C & E are false 2. A & B are true, C, D & E are false
3. B, C & D are true, A & E are false 4. B is true, A, C, D & E are false

3. Testing that is done as extreme programming (XP), treating development as the customer of testing and emphasizing the test-first design paradigm is called as

A. Alpha testing B. Agile Testing C. Beta Testing D. Monkey Testing
4.Which IEEE standards is used for a guide for developing system requirements specifications

A. IEEE 829 B.IEEE 830 C.IEEE 1058 D.IEEE 1233
5. Which IEEE standards is used for a standard for software inspections

A. IEEE 829 B.IEEE 830 C.IEEE 1028 D.IEEE 1540



6. ----------------- Is often the responsibility of the customers or users of a system; other stakeholders may be involved as well.
A. Unit testing B. Black box testing C. Ad hock testing D. Acceptance Testing

7. Which of these are objectives for software testing?
A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors
8. Which of the following is the best resource for validation testing of an object-oriented system?

A. PERT charts B. Use case scenarios C. Entity relationship diagrams D. Decomposition matrices

9. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of

A. Cycles in the program B. Errors in the program
C. Independent logic paths in the program D. Statements in the program

10. You are selecting the test paths based on the locations and uses of variables. You are doing

A. White Box testing B. Black Box C. Data flow testing D. a&c E. b&c

11. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?

A. Unit, integration, system, validation B. system, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system D. none of the above
12. A tester is reviewing the test of other, on the basis of Requirement specification, Use case etc. He/She is doing
A. Static Testing B. Verification C. A&B D. None of these
13. Which type of testing you can perform, without the product specification and requirement document?
A. System testing B. Regression testing C. Exploratory Testing D. Performance Testing
14. Which is the best code Coverage Analysis
A. Condition Coverage B. Branch Coverage C. Statement Coverage D. All
15. Some body is doing the testing without a plan it’s easy and fun but not organized. It’s not repeatable. It can’t be traced and when its over there is no proofs that it was ever done. He/She is doing
A. System Testing B. Integration Testing C. Ad hock Testing D. Usability Testing
16. What statements do you consider to be the most important?
A. Testing has the primary intent of showing the system meets the users needs
B. Testing has the primary intent of finding faults
A. Only A B. Only B C. Both A&B D. None of these
17. Your Manager has assigned one model for testing. They have given the instruction to use best test approach, so that the cost of bug will be low. So, which test approach will be the best approach?

A. Analytical approaches B. Preventative approaches,
B. Methodical approaches C. Dynamic and heuristic approaches

18. You have raised a fault, but Development is unable to reproduce it. What should your next step be?

A. Let development sign off the bug as not reproducible.
B. Sign off the bug yourself as not reproducible.
C. Tell development the bug definitely exists and you will not pass it unless fixed.
D. Re-test and upon confirmation provide more detailed information to Development, talking
them through each stage if necessary

19. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?

A. Conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing B. Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
C. Consider using independent test teams D. All of the above

20. Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?

A. Algorithmic performance B. Code stability C. Execution and error handling D. All of the above

21. Rank order, from first to last, the following elements to be developed when a software engineer is translating
customer expectations.

1. Actual results
2. Design specifications
3. Code
4. Functional specifications
(A) 2, 3, 4, 1 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2 (C) 4, 2, 3, 1 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1



22. Software trouble reports should be analyzed by a developer or a maintainer to determine

(A) Whether the software errors are distinguishable and reproducible
(B) Whether the maximum number of allowable errors and anomalies has been reached
(C) The problem effect and the fix rate
(D) What regression testing is required and when

23. Which two of the following are characteristics of a successful defect prevention program?
I. It is performed using a top-down approach.
II. A root cause analysis of defects is conducted.
III. Historical defect data are tracked.
IV. It is initiated at the end of the design phase.
(A) I and III (B) I and IV (C) II and III (D) II and IV

24. In which phase of a project’s development life cycle does the lack of requirements control prove most costly?
(A) Requirements (B) Design (C) Test (D) Maintenance

25. Software testing activities should start

A. During the design stage
B. As soon as the code is written
C. When the requirements have been formally documented
D. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle

26. A test design technique is
A. A process for selecting test cases
B. A process for determining expected outputs
C. A way to measure the quality of software
D. A way to describe in a test plan what has to be done
E. All of the above
27. The incremental model of software development is
A. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
D. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

28. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

A. Correctness, performance, integrity, usability
B. Reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
C. Correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
D. Correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability

29. The linear sequential model of software development is

A. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B. A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
D. An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.

30. A key concept of quality control is that all work products

A. Are delivered on time and under budget
B. Have complete documentation
C. Have measurable specifications for process outputs
C. Are thoroughly tested before delivery to the cust omer
Mock test -2
1 A
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 C
6 D
7 D
8 C
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 C
13 C
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 B
18 D
19 D
20 D
21 C
22 C
23 C
24 D
25 C
26 E
27 A
28 B
29 A
30 A

What are differences between sanity testing, smoke testing.....

What are the differences between sanity testing, smoke testing,
regression testing, and monkey testing?

Answer:
First, quite often the terms are not used correctly and you should learn
the meaning of the terms where you work and try to help adjust them to
industry norms. However, these terms may be used differently in your company since there are no formal standards for them, and most people wouldn't bother to learn the actual definitions if they existed.

Smoke tests get their name from the electronics industry. The circuits are
laid out on a bread board and power is applied. If anything starts smoking,
there is a problem. In the software industry, smoke testing is a shallow and
wide approach to the application. You test all areas of the application
without getting too deep. This is also known as a Build Verification test or
BVT.

In comparison, sanity testing is usually narrow and deep. That is they look
at only a few areas but all aspects of that part of the application. A smoke
test is scripted--either using a written set of tests or an automated
test--whereas a sanity test is usually unscripted.

A monkey test is also unscripted, but this sort of test is like a room full
of monkeys with a typewriter (or computer) placed in front of each of them.
The theory is that, given enough time, you could get the works of
Shakespeare (or some other document) out of them. This is based on the idea that random activity can create order or cover all options. Jamie Andrews
has been doing some work on an organised version of this at the University
of Western Ontario, London, Ontario, Canada. This method is called
coverage-checked random unit testing (CRUT). You can read about it at
http://www.csd.uwo.ca/faculty/andrews/papers/index.html.

Gorilla testing however has nothing to do with this. It is an intense round
of testing--quite often redirecting all available resources to the activity.
The idea here is to test as much of the application in as short a period of
time as possible.

Just to clarify here: a Sanity test is not the same as a Smoke Test or a
Build Verification test. The former is to determine a small section of the
application is still working after a minor change (which is not a good
policy, btw--you should do a regression test instead) and a Smoke or Build
Verification Test (BVT) is designed to touch every part of the application
in a cursory way. It's is shallow and wide. A Sanity test tends to be
unscripted, but you could (or should!) use a sub-set of your existing test
cases to verify a small part of your application. This is not quite a
regression test, where all areas of the application are tested using a
subset of the test cases.

A regression test is a more complete Smoke Test or BVT. A sanity test is a narrow regression test that focuses on a one or a few areas of functionality.

Some More sample Questions..

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4 Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 9999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet




17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users



Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 E
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B

Test 5 (ISEB/ ISTQB)

1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c

3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.

4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage

5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability

6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above

7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy

8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed

9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester

10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity

11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed

13. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END

McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable

15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table

16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing

18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement

19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing





Answers

1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c

ISEB/ISTQB foundation

1. When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

(A) Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and is likely to make the system fail
(B) Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
(C) Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
(D) Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

2. The inspection process assigns different roles to each of the inspectors in order to

(A) Keep the inspection teams small and manageable
(B) Encourage different viewpoints during the inspection process
(C) Use fewer organizational resources at any point in time
(D) Empower the inspection team members


3. The publisher of a social services resource guide has contracted for the development of an electronic version of
its guide. The product has been loosely defined to date due to the limited knowledge of the technology available
to the user community and to the limited technical expertise of the publisher’s staff. The development team
for this project will consist of two employees who are new to the company and one programmer with minimal
experience. Which of the following approaches would best serve the needs of this project?

A. Clean room methods B. Waterfall model C. Object oriented development D. Iterative development

4. A software quality assurance plan should be based principally on the quality requirements of

A. IEEE 730 B. ISO 9001 C. The customer/Clients D. Software engineering

5. Equivalence class partitioning is a testing technique best defined as the organization of each

A. Element of the specification into workable pieces B. Combination of states into two or more groups
C. Program function by intuition and experience D. Input domain into two or more groups

6. Which of the following models is characterized as being suitable for a software development project that has well-defined requirements?

A. Prototyping B. Spiral C. Waterfall D. Iterative

7.Records of the results of inspections should include which of the following?

(A) Identification of inspectors, list of defects, and date performed
(B) Work product, list of defects, and configuration status
(C) Identification of inspectors, their qualifications, and their training records
(D) Date performed, management approval, and resources used

8.The following code segment contains a potential “divide by 0” error.

J=50
K=1
While (N>=10) and (N<=10) loop
M [K] = J/N
K = K + 1
N = N 1
End loop

Which of the following is the most effective way of detecting this error?
A. Boundary testing B. Condition testing C. Compilation of the source code D. Source code inspection

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true about a software verification and validation program?

(A) It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
(B) It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
(C) It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
(D) It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

10.Which two of the following are characteristics of a successful defect prevention program?

I. It is performed using a top-down approach.
II. A root cause analysis of defects is conducted.
III. Historical defect data are tracked.
IV. It is initiated at the end of the design phase.
A. I and III B. IV and I C. II and III D. II and IV

11. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?

A. Conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing
B. specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
C. consider using independent test teams
D. all of the above

12. Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new

A. Control logic and data flow paths are invoked B. Memory size increases
C. Drivers require testing D. A and B.

13. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?
A. Allow senior staff members to correct errors
B. Assess programmer productivity
C. Par determining who introduced an error into a program
D. Uncover errors in software work products

14. When a defect is fixed in production how rather than in requirement, how much expensive is that

A. 5 times B. 50 times C. 500 times D. None

15. Which of the following Test cannot be automated?

A. Performance testing B. Regression Testing C. UAT D. None

16. The incremental model of software development is

A. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
D. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

17. Software testing activities should start
A. As soon as the code is written B. During the design stage
C. When the requirements have been formally documented D. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle
18. Which is not system level testing?
A. System Testing B. Performance Testing C. Installable Testing D. None
19. Compatibility testing uses
A. All S/W component B. All H/W component C. All N/W component D. A&B E. A&B&C
20. Acceptance test plan is prepared from
A. SRS B.HLD C. DD D.ULD/URD
21. For what purpose IEEE 829 template is used
A. Unit Testing B. Integration Testing C. Test Plan D. Test Documentation
22. Which of the following not comes under testing process?
A. Plan test B. Execute Test C. Manage Test D.Develop Test E. None of these
23. BS 7925-2 is standard for
A. Software Component testing B. Software Test Plan C. Unit Testing D. Integration Testing
24.Which of the following is test design technique
A. Equivalence Partioning B. Cause Effect Graphing C. Boundary Value Analysis D. All
25.Which of the following is the standard for software Unit Testing
A. IEEE 1008 B.IEEE 1009 C.IEEE 10288 D. IEEE 829
26. IEEE 1012 is standard for software
A. Unit Testing B. Software Review C. Verification and Validation D. Test Documentation
27. IEEE 10288 is standard for software
A. Unit Testing B. Software Review C. Verification and Validation D. Test Documentation
28. Which of the following is the standard for the software Test Documentation
A. IEEE 1012 B. IEEE 729 C.IEEE 829 D. IEEE 10288
29. You have delivered a product to the customer, insuring that there is no high severity. After certain time he/she found the bug in the production environment. Then the cost of bug will be
A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Very High
30. Just like with Salman. It’s difficult to swim in upstream. Each step is a discrete, standalone process that follows the one before it. If you get to the end and find that something should have happed further up. It’s too late to go back. This type of tendency found in which SDLC model
A. V-Model B. Spiral Model C. Rapid Application Development D. Water Fall model



Mock Test Paper-I

1 C
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 D
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 C
10 C
11 D
12 D
13 D
14 C
15 C
16 A
17 C
18 D
19 E
20 A
21 D
22 E
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 C
29 D
30 D