Showing posts with label HCL. Show all posts
Showing posts with label HCL. Show all posts

Saturday, February 21, 2009

ISTQB unleashed

1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c

3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.

4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage

5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability

6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above

7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy

8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed

9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester



10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity

11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed

13. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END

McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable

15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table

16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing

18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement

19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing





Answers

1 c
2 d
3 c
4 b
5 c
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 a
16 c
17 a
18 a
19 d
20 c

Tuesday, February 10, 2009

ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2





ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2

Duration: 1 hour

Instructions:
1. Pass criteria will be 60%
2. No negative marking


1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software

2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing

3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi

6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis

7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except

A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing

8. Find the Min number of tests to ensure that each statement is executed at least once

A. 5 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8


9. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?

A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

10. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control D. Version control

11. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?

I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV

12. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?

I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV C.II, III&IV D.I, III&IV

13. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is

A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

14. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
B. Establish a relationship with the customer
C. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
D. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style
E. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace



15. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?

Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user


16. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting

A.I, II&III B.II, III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II & IV

17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?

A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to

A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

19. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing D. Unit Testing

20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.

A. Water Fall Model B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model D. RAD Model

21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing D. Equivalence partitioning

22. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?

A. Integrity, Response time B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time D. Concurrency test, Integrity

23. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time. (

A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

24. Item transmittal report is also known as

A. Incident report B. Release note
C. Review report D. Audit report

25. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing D. Back to back testing

26. Big bang approach is related to

A. Regression testing B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing D. Integration testing

27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard

A. BS7799 B. BS 7925/2 C. ISO/IEC 926/1 D. ISO/IEC 2382/1

28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by

A. Horizontal tracebility B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities

29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test


30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan

A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

31. Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.

A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and IV


32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as

I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use

A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV D. II, III and IV.

33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model D. V-Model

34. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.

I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed

A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV

35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days.
Who is responsible for this incident?

A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only






36. System test can begin when?

I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

37. Test charters are used in ________ testing

A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing



All The Best

ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Test 2 Key

Q.No Answer Q.No Answer
1 (A) 20 (B)
2 (C) 21 (D)
3 (A) 22 (C)
4 (C) 23 (C)
5 (B) 24 (B)
6 (A) 25 (B)
7 (B) 26 (D)
8 (B) 27 (B)
9 (A) 28 (A)
10 (C) 29 (C)
11 (C) 30 (A)
12 (A) 31 (D)
13 (B) 32 (A)
14 (B) 33 (D)
15 (D) 34 (B)
16 (C) 35 (A)
17 (D) 36 (D)
18 (B) 37 (A)
19 (B)

Saturday, January 10, 2009

Some More sample Questions..

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4 Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 9999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet




17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users



Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 E
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B