___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
System testing should investigate (2M)
Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
Define when to stop testing
End of test level
When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
All of the above
Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
Poor software characteristics are (3M)
Only Project risks
Only Product risks
Project risks and Product risks
Project risks or Product risks
________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and updates
The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Bug life cycle (1M)
Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
Find the mismatch (2M)
Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
Test design tools – Generate test inputs
Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
FPA is used to (2M)
To measure the functional requirements of the project
To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
To measure the functional testing effort
To measure the functional flow
Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
The existing system (For a bench mark)
The code
Individual’s knowledge
User manual
Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
Heuristic testing approach
Methodical testing approach
Model based testing approach
Process or standard compliant testing approach
A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
ISTQB Foundation Level Second Batch (8th July 2006)
Mock Test 1 Key
Q.No
Answer
Q.No
Answer
1
B
20
D
2
C
21
C
3
A
22
D
4
B
23
D
5
A
24
A
6
C
25
B
7
B
26
D
8
C
27
A
9
C
28
C
10
D
29
D
11
D
30
A
12
B
31
B
13
B
32
B
14
A
33
C
15
D
34
C
16
A
35
A
17
D
36
B
18
A
37
A
19
C
Showing posts with label Interview. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Interview. Show all posts
Friday, July 11, 2008
ISTQB sample Questions
___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing
System testing should investigate (2M)
Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing
Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author
What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing
Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing
________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing
The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
Define when to stop testing
End of test level
When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
All of the above
Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues D. Error-prone software delivered
Poor software characteristics are (3M)
Only Project risks
Only Product risks
Project risks and Product risks
Project risks or Product risks
________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs D. Reviews and updates
The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC B. Project Plan C. Policy D. Procedure
Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Bug life cycle (1M)
Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability B. Usability C. Scalability D. Maintainability
Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox D. Exhaustive testing
‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design D. None
Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage D. Check the decision tables
PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing D. Smoke testing
Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams D. Decision testing
Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing D. Ad-hoc testing
A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
Find the mismatch (2M)
Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
Test design tools – Generate test inputs
Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
FPA is used to (2M)
To measure the functional requirements of the project
To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
To measure the functional testing effort
To measure the functional flow
Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
The existing system (For a bench mark)
The code
Individual’s knowledge
User manual
Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
Heuristic testing approach
Methodical testing approach
Model based testing approach
Process or standard compliant testing approach
A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
All the best
1
B
20
D
2
C
21
C
3
A
22
D
4
B
23
D
5
A
24
A
6
C
25
B
7
B
26
D
8
C
27
A
9
C
28
C
10
D
29
D
11
D
30
A
12
B
31
B
13
B
32
B
14
A
33
C
15
D
34
C
16
A
35
A
17
D
36
B
18
A
37
A
19
C
Monday, June 23, 2008
Software Testing Questions
Question
NOTE: Only one answer per question
1
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4
Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5
Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6
Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7
Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8
In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10
Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11
Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12
Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13
Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14
Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15
Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16
Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17
How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19
The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20
Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21
Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22
Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25
Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26
Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28
An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30
What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31
Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32
Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33
Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34
Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35
A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37
The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38
Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39
Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Question number
Correct answer
1
A
2
A
3
D
4
C
5
A
6
A
7
C
8
B
9
C
10
D
11
A
12
B
13
A
14
C
15
B
16
B
17
D
18
D
19
B
20
A
21
D
22
A
23
B
24
C
25
D
26
C
27
C
28
A
29
C
30
D
31
C
32
B
33
C
34
C
35
B
36
D
37
C
38
D
39
D
40
B
NOTE: Only one answer per question
1
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4
Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5
Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6
Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7
Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8
In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9
Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10
Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11
Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12
Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13
Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14
Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15
Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16
Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17
How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19
The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20
Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21
Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22
Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24
Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25
Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26
Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28
An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30
What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31
Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32
Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33
Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34
Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35
A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37
The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38
Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39
Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40
A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Question number
Correct answer
1
A
2
A
3
D
4
C
5
A
6
A
7
C
8
B
9
C
10
D
11
A
12
B
13
A
14
C
15
B
16
B
17
D
18
D
19
B
20
A
21
D
22
A
23
B
24
C
25
D
26
C
27
C
28
A
29
C
30
D
31
C
32
B
33
C
34
C
35
B
36
D
37
C
38
D
39
D
40
B
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