A. Project Status Report B. Risk Analysis Doc C. Tractability Matrix D. Bug Report
2. Which of the following best defines walkthrough?
A. A walkthrough as attesting technique whereby the system is subjected to huge loads of data over a short time
B. A walkthrough is a technique whereby a system is timed to see how long it takes the computer to walk through it to produce a result
C. A walkthrough is a session during which the participants act out the role of the computer in order to find flaws in the system.
D. A walkthrough is a technique whereby a number of testers are given the system for black box testing.
3. Identify which participant roles are used during a formal inspection?
(1) Moderator, (2) Author/producer, (3) Reader, (4) Inspector, (5) Recorder
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. All 5 from the above
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 4 and 5 only
4. Which testing technique involves installing a system at a large number of user sites?
A. Alpha testing B. Volume testing C. Beta testing D. Boundary value analysis
5. The program according requirements expects the uppercase letters from A to Z. Analyze the following inputs and choose one that can cause the failure with greater probability.
A. 1, 0 B. @, [ C. B, W D. None of these
Here I am
6. What are some of the common misconceptions during implementation of an automated testing tool for the first time?
A. Regression testing phase will be shortened
B. Existing testing processes can be used and all testers will have the skills to learn the new tool
C. During a ramp-up period, testing will take longer
D. Full Testing phase will be shorten
7. Automation test tool is best suited for
A. Functional Testing B. Regression Testing C. System Testing D. Performance Testing
8. ------------- Is generally assessed in terms of response time and throughput rates under differing processing and configuration conditions.
A. Unit Testing B. Regression Testing C. Performance Testing D. Ad hock Testing
9. Which of the following is IEEE 1219 standard?
A. Software Product Evaluation B. Software Life Cycle Processes.
C. Software Product Quality D. Software Maintenance.
10. A good way to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions, and to document internal system design. They may be used to record complex business rules that a system is to implement.
A. Decision tables B. Decision Tree C. Use Case D. Software Requirement Specification
11. Which type of Testing is much used within the embedded software industry and technical automation in general? This technique is also suitable for modeling a business object having specific states or testing screen-dialogue flows.
A. Decision Table Testing B. Use Case Testing C. Statement testing D. State Transition Testing
12. In which test approach, where test coverage is driven primarily by the advice and guidance of technology and/or business domain experts outside the test team.
A. Methodical approaches B. Model-based approaches
C. Dynamic and heuristic approaches D. Consultative approaches
13. The best way to establish and maintain the integrity of the products (components, data and documentation) of the software or system through the project and product life cycle.
A. Project Plan B. Requirement Management C. Configuration Management D. Risk Management
14. In a testing approach which separates out the test inputs (the data), usually into a spreadsheet, and uses a more generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test with different data.
A. Unit Testing B. System Testing C. Performance Testing D. Data Driven
15. Suppose your company is planning to buy the new automation tool. Then what are the potential benefits they get from using the tool.
i. Repetitive work is reduced
ii. Greater consistency and repeatability
iii. Ease of access to information about tests or testing
A. Only I B. i &iii C. I &ii D. All
16. A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project. It involves the identification of product risks and their use in guiding the test planning, specification, preparation and execution of tests. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to
a) Determine the test techniques to be employed.
b) Determine the extent of testing to be carried out.
c) Prioritize testing in an attempt to find the critical defects as early as possible.
d) Re-prioritize tests when an identified risk occurs
A. a&b B. All C. a, b&c D. a&d
17. Which of the following test estimation approach is based upon, past experience of an organization's various projects and the associated test effort that worked well for projects. Once there is a set of data covering characteristics for a reasonable number of projects, then this 'past experience' information can be used for future test project planning.
A. Metrics-Based Approach B. Percentage-of-Development Approach
C. Iterative Approach D. Implicit Risk Context Approach
18. Your Manager has assigned one model for testing. They have given the instruction to use best test approach, so that the cost of bug will be low. So, which test approach will be the best approach?
A. Analytical approaches B. Preventative approaches,
B. Methodical approaches C. Dynamic and heuristic approaches
19.Which of the following is structure based testing?
A. Statement testing and coverage B. Decision testing and coverage C. Condition testing D. All
20. A software manager for a company that provides embedded, real-time software is asked to benchmark the
department’s development and test processes. It would be appropriate for the manager to select a process model
from a company that develops software for
A. Data processing applications B. Database management systems
C. Robotic systems D. Graphical user interfaces
21. Which of the following tests are derived from the tester’s skill and intuition and their experience with similar applications and technologies
A. Error Guessing B. Exploratory Testing C. a&b D. None
22. The most appropriate driver for developing metrics is
A. Poor results in internal quality audits B. Management goals
C. Customer complaints D. missed milestones
23. Which unit testing technique eliminates the need for writing stubs?
A. Top down testing B. Bottom up testing C. Big bang testing D.Incremental testing
24. Which one among the following is correct?
A. Error ->fault ->failure B. Fault ->mistake ->error
C. Fault ->error ->failure D. Error ->mistake ->failure
25. Which of the following techniques is used in identifying underlying problems?
A. Cause and effect analysis B. Prioritization matrix C. Force field analysis D. Pareto analysis
26. Which of the following is the best resource for validation testing of an object-oriented system?
A. PERT charts B. Use case scenarios C. Entity relationship diagrams D. Decomposition matrices
27. Which of the following testing may include tests based on risks and/or on requirements specifications, business
Processes, use cases, or other high level descriptions of system behavior, interactions with the operating system, and system resources?
A. Sanity Testing B. System testing C. Smoke Testing D. Load Testing
28. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of the whole system.
B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test.
C. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, Inspection, etc).
D. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible.
29. Test ware (test cases, test data, etc.)
A. Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
B. Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
C. Is needed only until the software is released into production or use
D. Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system
30. A test design technique is
A. A process for selecting test cases B. A process for determining expected outputs
C. A way to describe in a test plan what has to be done D. All of the above
1 C
2 C
3 B
4 C
5 B
6 B
7 D
8 C
9 D
10 A
11 D
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 D
16 C
17 A
18 B
19 D
20 C
21 C
22 B
23 B
24 A
25 A
26 B
27 B
28 C
29 C
30 D
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